Text version of this daf: original and translation
Yevamot 3a (ג.) — the Talmud in English
Yevamot 3a (יבמות ג.): The Gemara raises an objection concerning the precedence of the prohibition of one's daughter, and concerning what we said: Since it is derived through a homiletic…
Original text — Yevamot 3a (ג.)
ומקשה הגמרא על העדיפות של ערות בתו, ועל מה שאמרנו שהיות והיא נלמדת מדרשה, חביב לו לתנא להזכירה תחילה:
והרי
כולהו
עריות, הפטור שלהן מיבום,
נמי
-
מדרשא אתו!
שהרי לא נאמר פטור ייבום אלא באחות אשה, וכל העריות נלמדות בדרשה ממנה, ומה עדיפות יש לבתו על שאר העריות?
ומשנינן:
נהי
, הגם,
דלענין
פטור מ
ייבום, אתיין
, נלמדות כל העריות
מדרשא
מאחות אשה.
בכל זאת,
עיקר איסורייהו
-
בהדיא
במפורש
כתיב בהו
, בהן.
אבל
בתו
-
עיקר איסורא
נלמד
מדרשא,
שהרי לא כתוב איסור בתו בתורה כלל. ולכן היא חביבה על התנא יותר.
דאמר רבא, אמר לי רב יצחק בר אבדימי: אתיא
, נלמד איסור ערות בתו בגזירה שוה
"הנה הנה
" [ויקרא י"ח].
איסור בתו שנולדה לו מאשתו הנשואה לו [אך לא בתו מאנוסתו] יש ללמוד מאיסור בת אשתו, שהוא אפילו בבת אשתו מבעלה הקודם.
שהרי לא גרע זה שהיא בתו מאשתו, מבת אשתו מבעל אחר, שאסורה לו, כיון שהיא בתה של אשתו.
ולימוד זה, הוא גם על בת בנו ובת בתו, שלא גרעו מבת בנה ובת בתה של אשתו מאדם אחר.
אך אין זה לימוד לאסור את בתו מאנוסתו, שהרי הפסוק הזה, האוסר את "בת אשתו" מדבר בענין של אישות ולא באונס של אשה פנויה.
ולכן צריך ללמוד את איסור בתו מאנוסתו מגזירה שוה: לפי שמצינו פסוק אחר, שבו אסר הכתוב את בת בנו ובת בתו מאנוסתו. שנאמר "ערות בת בנך או בת בנך לא תגלה". ושם לא נקט הכתוב לשון אישות, ולכן הוא נאמר אפילו בבת בנו ובת בתו מאנוסתו.
אלא, שבפסוק הזה לא נאמר איסור על בתו מאנוסתו.
ויש לנו ללמוד בגזירה שוה: כיון שנאמר בפסוק זה "הנה", ונאמר גם בפסוק של בת אשתו "הנה" -
הרי כמו שבבת אשתו נאסרה בתו כמו בת בנה ובת בתה,
הוא הדין בבתו מאנוסתו, היא תהא אסורה כמו בת בנו ובת בתו מאנוסתו, האמורות במפורש בפסוק האחר.
וכמו כן
אתיא
גזירה שוה לעונש שריפה על בתו:
נאמרה
"זמה
" בבת אשתו [ויקרא יח].
ונאמרה
"זמה
" [ויקרא כ] בעונש שריפה, בחמותו.
ועדיין יש מקום להקשות על הסדר שנקט התנא במניין העריות:
השתא
, עתה
דאמרת
, ש
כל מלתא דאתיא מדרשא חביבא ליה
לתנא, ולכן הוא מקדים אותו, תיקשי:
ליתני ל
ערות
אחות אשה
, שממנה לומדים את פטור היבום בכל העריות,
לבסוף
, כיון שרק בערות אחות אשה נאמר הפטור מיבום במפורש, ואילו כל שאר העריות נלמדות ממנה.
וצריך התנא להקדים את פטור שאר העריות, הנלמד בדרשה, לפני אחות אשה, שהפטור שלה נכתב במפורש.
ומשנינן:
איידי דאיירי
, כיון שכבר עסק התנא
באיסור אחוותא,
באחות אמו,
תנא
בסמוך לה גם את איסור
אחות אשתו
, שגם הוא איסור של אחות, ולכן לא דחה את אחות אשתו לסוף הרשימה.
ופרכינן:
וליתנייא ל
כל
האי בבא
, לכל הקטע של אחות אמו ואחות אשתו -
לבסוף!?
אלא,
יש לתרץ באופן אחר מדוע נקט התנא את ערות בתו תחילה, וממילא לא יקשה מדוע לא נקט התנא את אחות אשה בסוף.
תנא
-
קורבי קורבי נקט
.
את מי שקרוב אליו יותר, נקט התנא תחילה.
ולכן נקט תחילה את בתו, כי היא הקרובה לו ביותר מכל העריות, ולא מחמת שהיא חביבה היות והיא נלמדת מדרשה.
ולכן
תנא
תחילה
בתו, ובת בתו, ובת בנו
-
דקרובי עצמו
הם.
ואיידי דתנא שלשה דורות
שהם
למטה דידיה
, שקרובים לו.
תנא נמי שלשה דורות למטה דידה
, של אשתו, למרות שאין הן אסורות מחמת קירבתו עליהן, אלא מחמת שהן קרובות אשתו.
והיינו, בת אשתו ובת בנה ובת בתה.
ואיידי דתנא שלשה דורות למטה דידה
-
תנא שלשה דורות למעלה דידה
: חמותו ואם חמותו ואם חמיו.
ו
שוב
תנא אחותו ואחות אמו
-
דקרובי עצמו
הן, ולכן הקדימן לכלתו, שאינה "קרובתו", אלא נאסרה מחמת קידושי בנו.
ואיידי דאיירי באיסור אחוה
-
תנא
נמי
אחות אשתו
.
ועתה נשארו עוד שלש ערוות, שאין איסורן משום קירבתן אליו, והן: אשת אחיו מאמו, אשת אחיו שלא היה בעולמו, וכלתו.
ובדין הוא דליקדמה לכלתו מקמי אשת אחיו שלא היה בעולמו
, ולפני אשת אחיו מאמו, היות
דלא משום קורבא
אליו
הוא דאסירא
ליבום. ואיסור כלתו חמור מהן, שהיא בסקילה, והן בכרת.
אלא, איידי דאיירי
, היות ועסק התנא
באיסור אחוה
הקדים ו
תנא אשת אחיו שלא היה בעולמו
וכן הקדים לה אשת אחיו מאמו.
והדר
ואחר כך, בסוף,
תנא כלתו.
ועתה מבארת הגמרא את לשון המשנה "פוטרות צרותיהן":
ומאי איריא דתנא
, מדוע שנה התנא לשון של "חמש עשרה נשים
פוטרות
צרותיהן מן החליצה ומן הייבום", שיכולים להבין מכך שרק פטורות הן מחובת היבום, אבל אם הן רוצות, יכולות הן להתייבם?
והרי היה לו
ליתני
, לשנות:
אוסרות
צרותיהן לייבום!
לומר, כיון שאין בהן מצוות יבום, נשאר עליהן איסור אשת אח [שלא במקום מצות יבום]!
ומשנינן:
אי תנא "אוסרות
צרותיהן",
הוה אמינא אסור לייבם
.
אבל מיחלץ
-
חלצה!
שצריכות עדיין חליצה כדי להנשא לשוק.
קא משמע לן
התנא, בנוקטו לשון "פוטרות צרותיהן", שהן פטורות לגמרי, בין מן היבום ובין מן החליצה!
אך עדיין קשה: מדוע נוקט התנא לשון "פוטרות צרותיהן"?
והרי לשון זאת יכולה להטעות, שיש היתר ליבם אותן:
וליתני
"צרת ערוה -
אסורה לחלוץ!?
ומשנינן: אי אפשר לומר "ערוה אוסרת את צרתה לחלוץ", כי
מאי
איסור
קעביד
בחליצת צרת ערוה?
ומקשינן:
אלמה לא?
וכי אין טעם לאסור חליצה לצרת ערוה?
והרי
אם אתה אומר חולצת
צרת ערוה - יבואו גם לומר שהיא
מתייבמת!
ואם כן, יש מקום לאסור את החליצה בצרת ערוה, למרות שאין החליצה עושה דבר.
וחוזרת השאלה: מדוע שנה התנא "פוטרות", ולא שנה "אוסרות".
ומשנינן:
כיון ד
רק
במקום מצוה
של יבום
הוא דאסירה צרה
.
ושלא במקום מצוה
, אם היתה ערוה וצרה נשואה לאדם זר -
שריא
צרת הערוה [וכפי שיתבאר לקמן, שאיסור "צרת ערוה" הוא רק במקום נפילה ליבום, שצרת הערוה אסורה שם כאשת אח שיש לו בנים, אך אין בה איסור עצמי של "צרת ערוה"].
משום הכי תני "פוטרות
".
כי אם היה התנא אומר "אוסרות צרותיהן" היה מקום לטעות, ולומר שכוונתו היא לאיסור "צרת ערוה". והיינו, שכל "צרת ערוה" אסורה, אפילו אם היא היתה נשואה לאדם זר, אפילו שלא במקום יבום.
אך עתה, שנקט התנא לשון "פוטרות", משמע שצרת ערוה היא רק "פטור" מיבום, ואיסורה הוא רק מצד היותה אשת אח שאין לה היתר ליבום, והרי היא כאשת אח שיש לו בנים.
אלא שעדיין יש לתהות:
ומאי איריא דתני
, מדוע נקט התנא "חמש עשרה נשים פוטרות צרותיהן
מן החליצה ומן הייבום
"?
ליתני
: "פוטרות צרותיהן
מן הייבום" לחודיה
, בלבד! ומעצמנו נדע, כיון שאינה בת יבום הרי היא פטורה מן החליצה, שהרי ייבום הוא עיקר המצוה, ואם היא פטורה ממנו, משום מה תחלוץ!
ומשנינן:
אי תנא
רק "פוטרות צרותיהן
מן הייבום", הוה אמינא
שבכל זאת
מיחלץ חלצה,
על אף ש
יבומי לא מייבמה
.
כי היינו אומרים שגזירת הכתוב היא, מ"לצרור", לאסור צרת ערוה ליבום. אך יש מצווה לחלוץ לה, כדי שתתקיים לפחות מצות חליצה.
לכן
קא משמע לן
התנא באומרו "פוטרות צרותיהן מן החליצה ומן היבום" את הכלל:
כל העולה ל
זיקת
ייבום
-
עולה ל
זיקת
חליצה
.
וכל שאינו עולה ל
זיקת
ייבום
-
אינו עולה ל
זיקת
חליצה.
כי כשם שפוטרת הערוה מן זיקת היבום, היא פוטרת אותה לגמרי, שאינה צריכה חליצה.
אך עדיין יש לשאול, מדוע הקדים התנא את הפטור של חליצה לפטור של ייבום, ולא שנה תחילה את פטור היבום? שהרי מצות ייבום היא העיקר, ואת הפטור שלה היה התנא לשנות לפני הפטור מחליצה:
וליתני
"פוטרות צרותיהן
מן הייבום ומן החליצה
"!?
אי נמי
, ליתני
"מן החליצה" לחודה
, ופטור זה היה כולל גם את הפטור מייבום, שהרי אי אפשר לפוטרה מן החליצה במקום שקיימת זיקת ייבום!? ומשנינן: משנתנו - בשיטת
אבא שאול היא
.
דאמר: מצות חליצה
-
קודמת למצות ייבום.
שלדעתו, היות ואם מכוון היבם לכנוס את יבמתו לשם נוי או לשום אישות, ולא מכוון לשם מצות ייבום, הרי זה כפוגע בערות אשת אח, ולכן מוטב לו שיחלוץ.
ולכן הקדים התנא את מצות חליצה למצות ייבום.
ועתה מבארת הגמרא, מה בא התנא ללמד במנותו את מנין חמש עשרה הנשים בתחילת המשנה, ומה הוא בא ללמד באמרו בסוף הרשימה "הרי אלו", שבכך הרי זה כאילו הוא חוזר ומונה אותן, ומדגיש, כי זהו המנין, ואין עליו תוספת:
מנינא דרישא
, "חמש עשרה נשים" -
למעוטי מאי
הוא בא?
ו
כן
מנינא דסיפא
, "הרי אלו" -
למעוטי מאי
הוא בא?
Translation
The Gemara raises an objection concerning the precedence of the prohibition of one's daughter, and concerning what we said: Since it is derived through a homiletic interpretation, the tanna favors mentioning it first:
But
all of them
the forbidden relations whose co-wives are exempt from yibbum
also
are derived from a homiletic interpretation! Since the exemption from yibbum was stated only with regard to one's wife's sister, and all the other forbidden relations are derived through a homiletic interpretation from her, what precedence does one's daughter have over the other forbidden relations?
For the exemption from levirate marriage is stated only with regard to one’s brother’s wife, and all the other forbidden relatives are derived through an exposition from the case of one’s brother’s wife. What precedence, then, does one’s daughter have over the other forbidden relatives?
And we answer:
Granted—
even though
with regard to
the exemption from
yibbum, they are derived
all the forbidden relations
through a homiletic interpretation
from one's wife's sister,
nevertheless,
the primary basis of their prohibitions
explicitly
in an explicit statement
is written concerning them
concerning those relations.
But
one's daughter—
the primary basis of her prohibition
is derived
through a homiletic interpretation,
as the prohibition of one's daughter is not written anywhere in the Torah at all. Therefore, she is more favored by the tanna.
As Rava said: Rav Yitzḥak bar Avdimi said to me: It is derived
the prohibition of sexual relations with one's daughter is derived through a gezera shava
“henna, henna”
[Leviticus 18].
The prohibition of one's daughter born to him by his wife whom he married [but not his daughter born of a woman whom he raped] is derived from the prohibition of his wife's daughter, which applies even to his wife's daughter from her previous husband.
For it is no less the case that she is his daughter by his wife than that she is his wife's daughter by another man, who is prohibited to him because she is his wife's daughter.
This derivation also applies to his son's daughter and his daughter's daughter, for they are no less than his wife's son's daughter and his wife's daughter's daughter from another man.
However, this is not a derivation prohibiting his daughter born of a woman whom he raped, since the verse prohibiting “his wife's daughter” speaks of a marital relationship, and not of the rape of an unmarried woman.
Therefore, the prohibition of his daughter born of a woman whom he raped must be derived through a gezera shava. For we find another verse in which the Torah prohibits his son's daughter and his daughter's daughter born of a woman whom he raped, as it is stated: “You shall not uncover the nakedness of your son's daughter or your daughter's daughter.” There the verse does not use language referring to marriage, and therefore it applies even to his son's daughter and his daughter's daughter born of a woman whom he raped.
However, that verse does not state a prohibition concerning his daughter born of a woman whom he raped.
Rather, we derive it through a gezera shava: Since the word “henna” is stated in this verse, and “henna” is also stated in the verse concerning his wife's daughter—
just as his daughter is prohibited together with his wife's son's daughter and daughter's daughter in the case of his wife's daughter,
so too, his daughter born of a woman whom he raped is prohibited, just like his son's daughter and his daughter's daughter born of a woman whom he raped, which are stated explicitly in the other verse.
And likewise,
it is derived
through a gezera shava that the punishment for one's daughter is burning:
The term
“zima”
is stated concerning one's wife's daughter [Leviticus 18],
and the term
“zima”
is stated [Leviticus 20] with regard to the punishment of burning, concerning one's mother-in-law.
There is still room to raise an objection concerning the order adopted by the tanna in enumerating the forbidden relations:
Now—
now
that you say
that
anything derived through a homiletic interpretation is favored by him
the tanna, and therefore he mentions it first, the following difficulty arises:
Let him teach
the prohibition of
one's wife's sister
from which the exemption from yibbum for all the forbidden relations is derived,
last,
since the exemption from yibbum was stated explicitly only with regard to one's wife's sister, whereas all the other forbidden relations are derived from her.
The tanna should place the exemption of the other forbidden relations, which is derived through a homiletic interpretation, before one's wife's sister, whose exemption is written explicitly.
And we answer:
Since he was discussing
since the tanna had already been discussing
the prohibition of a sister,
one's maternal aunt,
he taught
immediately afterward also the prohibition of
one's wife's sister,
which is also a prohibition involving a sister, and therefore he did not defer one's wife's sister until the end of the list.
And we refute this:
Then let him teach
all
this section
the entire passage concerning one's maternal aunt and one's wife's sister—
last!?
Rather,
there is another way to explain why the tanna mentioned the prohibition of one's daughter first, and consequently the question of why he did not mention one's wife's sister last does not arise.
The tanna—
listed them in order of their closeness.
The one who is closer to him, the tanna mentioned first.
Therefore, he mentioned his daughter first, because she is closer to him than all the other forbidden relations—not because she is favored on account of being derived through a homiletic interpretation.
And therefore
the tanna
first
mentioned his daughter, his daughter's daughter, and his son's daughter—
for they are his own close relatives
.
And since he taught three generations
that are
below him,
those who are close to him,
he also taught three generations below her,
those of his wife, even though they are not prohibited because of their relationship to him, but because they are his wife's close relatives.
That is: his wife's daughter, his wife's son's daughter, and his wife's daughter's daughter.
And since he taught three generations below her—
he taught three generations above her:
his mother-in-law, his mother-in-law's mother, and his father-in-law's mother.
And
again
he taught his sister and his maternal aunt—
for they are his own close relatives,
and therefore he mentioned them before his daughter-in-law, who is not his own relative but is prohibited to him because of his son's marriage.
And since he was discussing the prohibition involving a sister—
he taught
also
one's wife's sister.
There now remained three other forbidden relations whose prohibition is not due to their relationship to him: his maternal half-brother's wife, the wife of a brother who was not alive in the world, and his daughter-in-law.
And it would be appropriate to place his daughter-in-law before the wife of a brother who was not alive in the world,
and before his maternal half-brother's wife, since
it is not because of a relationship
to him
that she is prohibited
from yibbum. The prohibition of his daughter-in-law is more severe than theirs, as she is subject to stoning, whereas they are subject to karet.
Rather, since he was discussing
since the tanna was engaged
with the prohibition involving a brother—
he preceded and
taught the wife of a brother who was not alive in the world,
and likewise he preceded her with the wife of his maternal half-brother.
And afterward,
later, at the end,
he taught his daughter-in-law.
The Gemara now explains the wording of the Mishna, “exempt their co-wives”:
And why specifically did he teach,
why did the tanna state the formulation “fifteen women
exempt
their co-wives from ḥalitza and from yibbum,” which might lead one to understand that they are merely exempt from the obligation of yibbum, but if they wish, they may enter into yibbum?
But he should have
taught,
stated:
“prohibit”
their co-wives from yibbum!
That is, since there is no mitzva of yibbum in their case, the prohibition of a brother's wife remains upon them [when it is not in the context of the mitzva of yibbum]!
And we answer:
If he had taught, “prohibit
their co-wives,”
I would have said that it is prohibited to perform yibbum.
But with regard to removing the shoe—
she performs ḥalitza!
For they would still require ḥalitza in order to marry someone outside the levirate bond.
He teaches us
the tanna, by using the expression “exempt their co-wives,” that they are entirely exempt, both from yibbum and from ḥalitza!
But the difficulty nevertheless remains: Why does the tanna use the expression “exempt their co-wives”?
For this expression could mislead one into thinking that it is permitted to perform yibbum with them:
Let him teach “
the co-wife of a forbidden relation
is prohibited from performing ḥalitza!”
And we answer: It is impossible to say “the forbidden relation prohibits her co-wife from performing ḥalitza,” because
what
prohibition
does he cause
by performing ḥalitza with the co-wife of a forbidden relation?
And we ask:
Why not?
Is there no reason to prohibit ḥalitza for the co-wife of a forbidden relation?
For
if you say that she performs ḥalitza,
the co-wife of a forbidden relation, people will also come to say that she
enters into yibbum!
If so, there is reason to prohibit ḥalitza in the case of the co-wife of a forbidden relation, even though the ḥalitza accomplishes nothing.
The question therefore returns: Why did the tanna teach “exempt,” rather than “prohibit”?
And we answer:
Since
only
in the context of the mitzva
of yibbum
is the co-wife prohibited.
But when it is not in the context of the mitzva,
if a forbidden relation and her co-wife were married to an unrelated man—
the co-wife is permitted
the co-wife of the forbidden relation [as will be explained below, the prohibition of “the co-wife of a forbidden relation” applies only where she falls to yibbum, in which case she is prohibited there as a brother's wife whose husband has children; but she does not have an intrinsic prohibition as “the co-wife of a forbidden relation”].
For this reason he taught “exempt.”
For had the tanna said “prohibit their co-wives,” one might err and say that he meant the prohibition of “the co-wife of a forbidden relation”—that every co-wife of a forbidden relation is prohibited, even if she was married to an unrelated man and even when it is not in the context of yibbum.
But now that the tanna used the expression “exempt,” it indicates that the co-wife of a forbidden relation is merely “exempt” from yibbum, and that her prohibition is only because she is a brother's wife who has no permission for yibbum; she is therefore like a brother's wife whose husband has children.
Nevertheless, there is still room to wonder:
And why specifically did he teach,
why did the tanna state “fifteen women exempt their co-wives
from ḥalitza and from yibbum”?
Let him teach: “
They exempt their co-wives
from yibbum alone,”
only! And we would know on our own that since she is not subject to yibbum, she is exempt from ḥalitza as well, for yibbum is the primary mitzva; if she is exempt from it, why should she perform ḥalitza?
And we answer:
If he had taught
only “they exempt their co-wives
from yibbum,” I would have said
that nevertheless
she performs ḥalitza,
even though
he does not perform yibbum with her.
For we would have said that there is a scriptural decree, derived from “to vex,” prohibiting the co-wife of a forbidden relation from yibbum. But there is nevertheless a mitzva to perform ḥalitza for her, so that at least the mitzva of ḥalitza will be fulfilled.
Therefore,
he teaches us
the tanna, by saying “they exempt their co-wives from ḥalitza and from yibbum,” the following principle:
Anyone who is subject to
the bond of
yibbum
is subject to
the bond of
ḥalitza.
And anyone who is not subject to
the bond of
yibbum
is not subject to
the bond of
ḥalitza.
to the bond of levirate marriage is subject to the bond of the ritual of the levir’s-lifted shoe, and anyone who is not subject to the bond of levirate marriage is exempt from the ritual of the levir’s-lifted shoe. Whenever we say that she performs the ritual of the levir’s-lifted shoe but does not enter into levirate marriage, it is because of uncertainty. Rabbi Akiva Eiger raised a difficulty from page 21a, where it is evident that women subject to prohibitions derived from negative commandments and positive commandments perform the ritual of the levir’s-lifted shoe but do not enter into levirate marriage, and this is not a law of uncertainty. Later authorities explained that there are two principles included in “anyone who is not subject to levirate marriage.” The first applies to a woman who is not subject at all to the bond of levirate marriage, as Rashi phrases it. This is a forbidden relative subject to a prohibition carrying excision, who has no bond of levirate marriage at all and therefore has no bond of the ritual of the levir’s-lifted shoe either. The second applies to women subject to prohibitions derived from negative commandments and positive commandments. Even if one says that when the levir has relations with her he does not acquire her, and even if one says that because she is prohibited by a negative commandment and a positive commandment she has the status of a brother’s wife subject to excision [this is the view of Tosafot HaRosh], she nevertheless has a “bond of levirate marriage” for the ritual of the levir’s-lifted shoe. Therefore, even though she is not actually subject to levirate marriage, she is subject to the ritual of the levir’s-lifted shoe. The reason is that only a forbidden relative who exempts from levirate marriage, such as one’s brother’s wife, can exempt her entirely; women subject to prohibitions derived from negative commandments and positive commandments cannot do so. Even the excision applicable to them as a brother’s wife cannot exempt them from the ritual of the levir’s-lifted shoe, since that excision does not prevent levirate marriage: because she is a brother’s wife, she would indeed be subject to levirate marriage, and only the negative and positive commandments prevent the levirate marriage. Therefore, although she is not subject to levirate marriage, she is subject to the ritual of the levir’s-lifted shoe—even though she has the status of a brother’s wife subject to excision. The later authorities explained that Rashi’s intention is the principle that anyone who is not subject to the bond of levirate marriage is not subject to the bond of the ritual of the levir’s-lifted shoe; the only exception we find to it is a case of uncertainty, in which she performs the ritual of the levir’s-lifted shoe but does not enter into levirate marriage. Rashi did not explain here the principle that women subject to prohibitions derived from negative commandments and positive commandments are subject to the ritual of the levir’s-lifted shoe even though they do not enter into levirate marriage, because that principle does not deal with the bond of levirate marriage and the ritual of the levir’s-lifted shoe.
For just as the forbidden relation exempts her from the bond of yibbum, she exempts her entirely, so that she does not require ḥalitza.
But the question still remains: Why did the tanna place the exemption from ḥalitza before the exemption from yibbum, rather than teach the exemption from yibbum first? For the mitzva of yibbum is primary, and the tanna should have taught its exemption before the exemption from ḥalitza:
Let him teach “
they exempt their co-wives
from yibbum and from ḥalitza”!?
Alternatively,
let him teach
“from ḥalitza alone”,
and this exemption would also include exemption from yibbum, since it is impossible to exempt her from ḥalitza while the bond of yibbum exists!? And we answer: Our Mishna follows the view of
Abba Shaul.
For he says: The mitzva of ḥalitza—
takes precedence over the mitzva of yibbum.
In his view, since if the yavam intends to take his yevama in marriage for the sake of beauty or for the sake of marriage, and does not intend to do so for the sake of the mitzva of yibbum, he is thereby engaging in intercourse with the forbidden relation of a brother's wife, it is preferable for him to perform ḥalitza.
Therefore, the tanna placed the mitzva of ḥalitza before the mitzva of yibbum.
The Gemara now explains what the tanna intended to teach by stating the number of fifteen women at the beginning of the Mishna, and what he intended to teach by saying “these are they” at the end of the list—thereby seeming to repeat the enumeration and emphasize that this is the number, with nothing to be added:
The enumeration at the beginning, “
fifteen women”—
what does it come to exclude
?
And
likewise,
the enumeration at the end, “
these are they”—
what does it come to exclude
?